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  • JKSSB Driving Test Result 2023 Download PDF

    JKSSB Driving Test Result 2023 Download PDF Here, Check Your By Name Here 

    JKSSB Driving Test Result 2023 Download PDF


    Subject: Result of Driving Test for the posts of Driver/Driver Gr.II/Tractor Driver/Driver II – regarding.

    NOTIFICATION

    Whereas, in pursuance of the Advertisement Notification Nos. 05 of 2021, 02 of 2022, 04 of 2022 and 01 of 2023, the Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board conducted driving test for various posts of Driver/Driver Gr.II/Driver II/Tractor Driver, in different Cadres/ Departments, under various Item numbers from 21-08-2023 to 12-10-2023; and

    Whereas, the Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board vide Notification No. JKSSB-COE0EXAM(UT)/57/2023-03-SSB, dated: 12-08-2023, issued schedule for driving test w.e.f. 21-08-2023 to 09-10-2023, for the above said posts; and

    Whereas, the Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board vide Notification No. JKSSB-COEOEXAM(UT)/57/2023-03-SSB, dated: 06-10-2023, issued a revised schedule for conduct of driving test on 12-10-2023 at State Motor Garages, Bemina,Srinagar for those candidates who had appeared before the designated Driving Test Committee on the day of their driving test but their driving test could not be conducted on account of pending clarification; and

    Now, therefore, in view of the above, the result of driving test based on theperformance of candidates who have qualified the Driving Test for the posts ofDriver/Driver Gr.II/Driver II/Tractor Driver, in different departments/cadres, advertisedvide Notification Nos. 05 of 2021, 02 of 2022, 04 of 2022 and 01 of 2023, under variousItem numbers, conducted from 21-08-2023 to 09-10-2023 and on 12-10-2023, ishereby notified as Annexure “A”.

    Further, it is also notified for the information of all the candidates figuring inAnnexure “A”, that Written Test for the said posts shall be conducted in thesecondfortnight of November, 2023 tentatively.

    It is further notified that:

    (i) mere figuring in thisnotification shall not entitle a candidate to be called for nextstage or figure in the select list and that he has to fulfil other eligibilityconditions, as laid down and decision of the Board in this regard shall be final.

    (ii) any candidate desirous of making representation with regard to the resultnotification or clubbing of multiple Application IDs/Notifications( If not alreadyclubbed), may represent before the Board (JKSSB Office, Jammu/Srinagar) by or before 17″October, 2023. Such representations shall be disposed of inaccordance with the extant Rules.

    Download PDF Here 

  • Indian Geography MCQ with Answers PDF Download

    Indian Geography MCQ with Answers PDF Download Free Here

    Indian Geography MCQ with Answers PDF Download

    Previous years Question papers is an important step for preparation of JKSSB, STATE PCS, UPSC and SSC Exams. It gives the candidates an insight into the type of questions asked by all state exams on particular subjects and topics. Which in turn can help the candidates focus their efforts on important topics specifically for General Awareness section. 

    Therefore, we have created this e-book – All States exam:Previous year Geography Questions and Answers. In this e-book all the questions asked on Geography in JKSSB PREVIOUS YEAR  Exam have been included. This E-book is a must for any candidate who wishes to clear the all state level Exam.

    MCQS QUESTION 

    Q. The eastward continuation of the Brazil current is called:

    (a) North Atlantic drift

    (b) South Atlantic drift

    (c) Counter Equatorial drift

    (d) West Atlantic drift

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q. Ice glacier’s melting is a common phenomenon linked to the rise in a seawater level. The glaciers are predominantly present in

    (a) Greenland

    (b) Antarctica

    (c) Himalayas

    (d) Arctic

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q. Which hill station is called as the ‘Queen of the Satpuras’

    (a) Pachmarhi

    (b) Nilgiri

    (c) Mahenderagiri

    (d) Cardamom

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    Q. Which national highway connects Delhi and Kolkata via Mathura and Varanasi?

    (a) NH 4

    (b) NH 2

    (c) NH 10

    (d) NH 6

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q. The country where drip irrigation is more efficiently used is

    (a) India

    (b) Israel

    (c) Sri Lanka

    (d) England

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    For more details You can Visit www.jkssbalerts.in or WhatsApp/call us on +918803123735

    Q. Which river in India flows in a rift-valley?

    (a) Narmada

    (b) Krishna

    (c) Cauvery

    (d) Tapti

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    Q. A narrow strip of land that connects two larger land masses is called

    (a) Cape

    (b) Isthmus

    (c) Strait

    (d) Peninsula

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q. Maps on large scale, representing both natural and man-made features are called

    (a) Thematic maps

    (b) Atlas maps

    (c) Wall maps

    (d) Topographic maps

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q. The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian at a place is

    (a) Declination

    (b) Latitude

    (c) Azimuth

    (d) Dip

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    Q. An irrigation project is categorized as a major project if it covers a cultivable command area of

    (a) less than 2,000 hectares

    (b) 2,000 to 10,000 hectares

    (c) above 10,000 hectares

    (d) all the above

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q. The programme of ‘Operation Flood’ was concentrated on

    (a) increasing irrigation facilities.

    (b) flood control.

    (c) increasing the milk production.

    (d) increase the flood grains production.

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q. According to Ferrel’s law (Coriolis Force) winds change their direction

    (a) Towards left in Northern hemisphere and towards right in Southern hemisphere.

    (b) Towards right in Northern hemisphere and towards left in Southern hemisphere.

    (c) Towards right in both the hemisphere.

    (d) Towards left in both the hemisphere.

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q. Which one of the following atmospheric layers absorb ultraviolet rays of the sun?

    (a) Troposphere

    (b) Stratosphere

    (c) Ionosphere

    (d) Ozonosphere

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q. The drainage pattern developed on folded sedimentary rock is termed as

    (a) Trellis

    (b) Dendritic

    (c) Radial

    (d) Deranged

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q. Which one of the following is not a line of demarcation between two countries ?

    (a) Durand Line

    (b) Mac Mahon Line

    (c) Plimsoll Line

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    (d) Maginot Li

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q. Water potential remains lowest in

    (a) Water plants

    (b) Woody plants

    (c) Succulents

    (d) Halophytes

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q. The free-living bacterium in the soil which increases the yield of rice is

    (a) Rhizobium

    (b) Azotobacter

    (c) Acetobacter

    (d) Anabaena

    Q. Frontal cyclones occur characteristically in

    (a) Equatorial region

    (b) Tropical region

    (c) Mid-latitudinal region

    (d) Polar region

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q. “Yosemite” is a

    (a) River

    (b) Peak

    (c) Waterfall

    (d) Dam

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q. Where is the shore based steel plant located?

    (a) Tuticorin

    (b) Salem

    (c) Vishakhapatnam

    (d) Mangalore

    CORRECT ANSWER (C) 

    Q. Which two of the following are connected by the North South corridor?

    (a) Srinagar and Kanyakumari

    (b) Mumbai and Chennai

    (c) Amritsar and Kolkata

    (d) Hyderabad and Bhopal

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    SSC CGL Question Paper – Geography Questions 2014

    Q) Which of the following statements is correct?

    (a) Mahadeo hills are in the west of Maikala hills.

    (b) Mahadeo hills are the part of Karnataka Plateau.

    (c) Mahadeo hills are in the east of Chhotanagpur Plateau.

    (d) Mahadeo hills are the part of Aravalli ranges.

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    Q) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    (a) Hevea Tree—Brazil

    (b) Sumatra Storm—Malaysia

    (c) Kajan River—Borneo

    (d) Dekke Toba fish—Brazil

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) Which of the following resources is renewable one?

    (a) Uranium

    (b) Coal

    (c) Timber

    (d) Natural Gas

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Soil erosion can be prevented by

    (a) Increasing bird population

    (b) Afforestation

    (c) Removal of vegetation

    (d) Overgrazing

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    Q) Natural sources of air pollution are

    (a) Forest fires

    (b) Volcanic eruptions

    (c) Dust storm

    (d) Smoke from burning dry leaves

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    SSC CGL Question Paper – Geography Questions 2015

    Q) The ‘graded profile’ of a river course is a

    (a) smooth curve in the upper course

    (b) smooth curve in the middle course

    (c) smooth curve in the lower course

    (d) smooth curve from source to mouth

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) Sink hole is a phenomenon of _______ topography.

    (a) Desert

    (b) Tundra

    (c) Karst

    (d) Plain

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Kerala is famous for the cultivation of

    1. Coconut

    2. Black pepper

    3. Rubber

    4. Rice

    (a) 1, 2 and 4

    (b) 2, 3 and 4

    (c) 1 and 4

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) The longest continental Railway in the world is

    (a) Trans Siberian Railway

    (b) Canadian Pacific Railway

    (c) Canadian National Railway

    (d) Trans Atlantic Railway

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    Q) Which of the following is FALSE with respect to rain water harvesting?

    (a) It helps raising water table

    (b) It helps meet rising water demand

    (c) It increases run-off losses

    (d) It is a device of water conservation

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Which of the following river does not originate in Indian territory?

    (a) Mahanadi

    (b) Brahmaputra

    (c) Satluj

    (d) Ganga

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q) Which one among the following industries in the maximum consumer of water in India?

    (a) Textile

    (b) Engineering

    (c) Paper and Pulp

    (d) Thermal Power

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) Choose the correct option which represents the arrangement of atmospheric layers.

    (a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere, Exosphere

    (b) Mesosphere, Ionosphere, Exosphere, Troposphere, Stratosphere

    (c) Ionosphere, Exosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Stratosphere

    (d) Exosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    Q) Which of the following options correctly explains the term ‘heat budget’?

    (a) It is the amount of heat which the surface of earth receives form the sun.

    (b) It is the radiation from the earth in the form of long waves

    (c) It is a mode of transfer of heat through matter by molecular activity.

    (d) It is the balance between incoming and outgoing radiation.

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) The layer of atmosphere close to the earth’s surface is called:

    (a) Exosphere

    (b) Ionosphere

    (c) Stratosphere

    (d) Troposphere

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) Which of the following plant shows chloroplast dimorphism?

    (a) Sugarcane

    (b) Sugar beet

    (c) Rice

    (d) Wheat

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    Q) Day and Night are equal at the:

    (a) Prime Meridian

    (b) Poles

    (c) Equator

    (d) Antarctic

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Evergreen type forests are found in:

    (a) Mediterranean region

    (b) Monsoon climatic area

    (c) Desert region

    (d) Equatorial region

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q) The ash-grey soils of high latitude coniferous forests are known as:

    (a) Grey-Brown soils

    (b) Red and Yellow soils

    (c) Tundra soils

    (d) Podsols

    CORRECT ANSWER (A)

    Q) Equinox occurs when the sun is vertically above

    (a) Tropic of Capricorn

    (b) Tropic of Cancer

    (c) Poles

    (d) Equator

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) Among the world oceans, which ocean is having the widest continental shelf?

    (a) Antarctic Ocean

    (b) Arctic Ocean

    (c) Indian Ocean

    (d) Atlantic Ocean

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q) Which is largest peninsular river in India?

    (a) Krishna

    (b) Godavari

    (c) Cauvery

    (d) Mahanadi

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q) Red soil is normally found in India in which regions?

    (a) Eastern Region only

    (b) Southern Region only

    (c) Eastern & Southern part of the Deccan Plateau

    (d) None of these

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Limestone is a raw material used by which industry?

    (a) Aluminium

    (b) Fertilizers

    (c) Cement

    (d) Petrochemicals

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Mount Abu is a hill station located in _____ ranges.

    (a) Vindhya

    (b) Satpuda

    (c) Aravalli

    (d) Sahyadri

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) The only perennial river in Peninsular India is _____.

    (a) Godavari

    (b) Kaveri

    (c) Krishna

    (d) Bhima

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q) When does solar eclipse take place?

    (a) When the sun is between the moon and earth

    (b) When the earth is between the moon and sun

    (c) When the moon is between the sun and earth

    (d) When the moon does not lie on the line joining the sun and earth

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Strait of Gibraltar connects which of the following?

    (a) Red Sea-Mediterranean Sea

    (b) Red Sea-Arabian Sea

    (c) Atlantic Ocean-Mediterranean Sea

    (d) Mediterranean Sea-Black Sea

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) The largest solar power plant in India is located at

    (a) Nagercoil

    (b) Jaisalmer

    (c) Madhapur

    (d) Rann of Kutch

    For more details You can Visit www.jkssbalerts.in or WhatsApp/call us on +918803123735

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) On which river is the Tehri dam built?

    (a) Alakananda

    (b) Bhagirathi

    (c) Ganga

    (d) Hooghly

    CORRECT ANSWER (B)

    Q) With which country, India has the longest international boundary?

    (a) Nepal

    (b) Pakistan

    (c) China

    (d) Bangladesh

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) Which State in India has the largest coastline?

    (a) Tamil Nadu

    (b) Andhra Pradesh

    (c) Gujarat

    (d) West Bengal

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Jog falls in Karnataka is located over which river?

    (a) Kaveri

    (b) Godavari

    (c) Sharavati

    (d) Krishna

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Which one of the following areas of India is covered by tropical evergreen forest?

    (a) Semi-arid areas of Gujarat

    (b) Eastern Ghats

    (c) Western Ghats

    (d) Madhya Pradesh

    CORRECT ANSWER (C)

    Q) Which of the following State is surrounded by Bangladesh from three sides?

    (a) Nagaland

    (b) Assam

    (c) Arunachal Pradesh

    (d) Tripura

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) Which of the following region is covered by tropical evergreen forest?

    (a) Eastern Ghat

    (b) Vindhyachal

    (c) Aravalli

    (d) Western Ghat

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

    Q) The Final Boundry between the Earth and the outer space is called _____.

    (a) Magnetosphere

    (b) Ionosphere

    (c) Mesopause

    (d) Magnetopause

    CORRECT ANSWER (D)

  • Multiple Choice Question with Answer for General Science – Download PDF

     

    Multiple Choice Question with Answer for General Science - Download PDF

    MCQS Multiple Choice Question with Answer for General Science – Download PDF Here 

    For more Details you can visit :- www.jkssbalerts.com 

    These are most important mcqs on general science asked by JKSSB UPSC AND other state multiple exams. You can revise the mcq of general science for Various exams like FAA, vlw, junior assistant,SI etc. For download ebook you can request to author for the pdf of this article. 

    PHYSICS

    1. An object will continue to accelerate until the resultant force:

    A. Becomes zero

    B. Is increased continuously

    C. Begins to decrease

    D. Changes the direction of velocity

    Answer: A – Becomes zero

    2. What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with a velocity v?

    A. (mv)2

    B. mv2

    C. ½ mv2

    D. mv

    Answer: D – mv

    3. According to second law of motion “the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to……………… applied”

    A. Pressure

    B. Force

    C. Acceleration

    D. Torque

    Answer: B – Force

    4. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of:

    A. Mass

    B. Energy

    C. Momentum

    D. Velocity

     Answer: C – Momentum

    5. The inertia of an object tends to cause the object:

    A. to increase its speed

    B. to decrease its speed

    C. to resist any change in its state of motion

    D. to decelerate due to friction

    Answer: C – to resist any change in its state of motion

    6. According to the third law of motion, action and reaction:

    A.always act on the same body

    B. always act on different bodies in opposite directions

    C. have same magnitude and directions

    D. act on either body at normal to each other

    Answer: B. always act on different bodies in opposite directions

    7. When a body falls freely towards the earth, then its total energy

    A. increases

    B. decreases

    C. remains constant

    D. first increases and then decreases

     Answer: C – Remains constant

    8. Which one of the following is not the unit of energy?

    A. joule

    B. newton metre

    C. kilowatt

    D. kilowatt hour

    Answer: C – Kilowatt

    9. The work done on an object does not depend upon the

    A. displacement

    B. force applied

    C. angle between force and displacement

    D. initial velocity of the object

    Answer: D- initial velocity of the object

    10. Water stored in a dam possesses:

    A. no energy

    B. electrical energy

    C. kinetic energy

    D. potential energy

    Answer: D – Potential energy

    11. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is:

    A. always less than 1

    B. always equal to 1

    C. always more than 1

    D. equal or less than 1

    Answer: D – equal or less than 1 

    12. If the displacement of an object is proportional to square of time, then the object moves with

    A. uniform velocity

    B. uniform acceleration

    C. increasing acceleration

    D. decreasing acceleration

    Answer: B – Uniform acceleration

    13. In which of the following cases of motions, the distance moved, and the magnitude of

    displacement are equal?

    A. If the car is moving on straight road

    B. If the car is moving in circular path

    C. The pendulum is moving to and fro

    D. The earth is revolving around the Sun

    Answer: B – If the car is moving in circular path

    14. The resistivity does not change if:

    A. the material is changed

    B. the temperature is changed

    C. the shape of the resistor is changed

    D. both material and temperature are changed

     Answer: C – the shape of the resistor is changed

    15.Loudness of sound is determined by:

    A. Pitch

    B. Frequency

    C. Amplitude

    D.Time period

    Answer: C – Amplitude

    16. How many SI units are there?

    A. 5

    B. 6

    C. 7

    D. 8

    Answer: C -7

    17. What is the unit of specific resistance?

    A. Ohm -1

    B. Ohm-m

    C. Ohm -1 m -1

    D. Ohm-m2

    Answer: B-Ohm-m

    18. What is the unit of length used to measure the wavelength of light?

    A. Fermi

    B. Angstrom

    C. Parsec

    D. Barn

    Answer: B – Angstrom

    19. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as

    A. volt ampere

    B. kilowatt hour

    C. watt second

    D. joule second

    Answer: C – Volt ampere

    20. When waves travel, they transmit __________ from one place to another.

    A. Energy

    B. Mass

    C. Both

    D. None

    Answer: A. Energy

    21. The particles of a medium vibrate in longitudinal waves _________

    A. Perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion

    B. Along the direction of wave motion

    C. Opposite to the direction of the wave motion

    D. Do not vibrate at all

    Answer: B – Along the direction of wave motion

    22. Which of the following organisms produces biogas from cow drug sherry in the biogas plant?

    A. Aerobic bacteria

    B. Anaerobic bacteria

    C. Protozoa

    D. Fungi

    Answer: B- Anaerobic bacteria

    23. What are the disadvantages of solar energy?

    A large surface area is required collect the solar

    B. Daily average of solar energy highly varies from 4 to 7 kwh/m2

    C. Hazardous materials are used in the manufacturing of solar devices

    D. All of the above 

    Answer: D – All of the above

    24. In a hydropower plant,

    A. Electricity is extracted from water

    B. Potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity

    C. Kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential energy

    D. Water is converted into steam to produce electricity.

     

    Answer: B – Potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity

    25. Ocean thermal energy is due to:

    A. Energy stored by waves in the ocean

    B. Temperature difference at different levels in the ocean

    C. Pressure difference at different levels in the ocean

    D. Tides arising out in the ocean

    Answer: B -Temperature difference at different levels in the ocean

    26. A resonating column of air contains:

    A. Stationary longitudinal waves

    B. Stationary transverse waves

    C. Transverse progressive waves

    D. Longitudinal progressive waves

    Answer: A – Stationary longitudinal waves

    27. The relationship between current, voltage and resistance are known as __________ law.

    A. Newton’s

    B. Ohm’s

    C. Coulomb’s

    D. Faraday’s law

    Answer: B – Ohm’s 

     

    28. If current increases then voltage ________.

     

    A. Increases

    B. Decreases

    C. Remains stable

    D. None of the above

     

    Answer: A – Increases

     

    29. The resistivity does not change if:

     

    A. the material is changed

    B. the temperature is changed 

    C. the shape of the resistor is changed

    D. both material and temperature are changed

     

    Answer: C – the shape of the resistor is changed

     

    30. The major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to 

     

    A. Split nuclei

    B. Sustain the reaction

    C. Dispose of spent fuel safely

    D. Convert nuclear energy into electrical energy

     

    Answer: C – dispose of spent fuel safely

    Next page 

  • Indian History MCQS Multiple Choice Questions With Answers PDF

    Indian History Multiple Choice Questions With Answers PDF Download Here MCQS 

    For more info visit www.jkssbalerts.com or WhatsApp/call us on +91———+
    Modern History Questions for JKSSB Exams,SSC and other states Exams


    Indian History MCQS Multiple Choice Questions With Answers PDF

    1. Who gave the title of “Mahamana” to 

    Madan Mohan Malviya?

    A. Bal Gandadhar Tilak

    B. Dada Bhai Naurozi

    C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

    D. Mahatma Gandhi

    Correct Answer: D

    2. Who was the Viceroy of the time of Quit 

    India Movement? 

    A. Lord Irwin

    B. Lord Mountbatten

    C. Lord Wavell

    D. Lord Lin Lithgow

    Correct Answer: D

    3. Who was the other Congress leader who 

    joined with Motilal Nehru to start the 

    Swaraj Party in 1923?

    A. G.K. Gokhale

    B. B.G. Tilak

    C. Chittaranjan Das

    D. M.K. Gandhi

    Correct Answer: C

    4. From which of the following banks did 

    Madan Mohan Malaviya take loans for 

    financing “The Hindustan Times”?

    A. State Bank of India

    B. Punjab National Bank

    C. Bank of Maharashtra

    D. Bank of Baroda

    Correct Answer: B

    5. Where are the Todas found?

    A. Madhya Pradesh

    B. Tamil Nadu

    C. Rajasthan

    D. Aruncachal Pradesh

    Correct Answer: B

    6. Rowlatt Act 1919 was enacted during 

    the period of?

    A. Lord Chelmford

    B. Lord William

    C. Lord Minto

    D. Lord Bentinck

    Correct Answer: A

    7. Panchayati Raj System was implemented 

    first in the pair of states?

    A. Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan

    B. Assam and Bihar

    C. Arunachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh

    D. Punjab and Chandigarh

    Correct Answer: A

    8. Which of the following tribes is

    associated with the “Tana Bhagat” 

    movement?

    A. Uraon

    B. Munda

    C. Santhal

    D. Kondadora

    Correct Answer: A

    9. Who founded the Naujawan Bharat 

    Sabha?

    A. B. C. Pal

    B. G. Subramania Iyer

    C. Sardar Bhagat Singh

    D. Rukmani Lakshmipathi

    Correct Answer: C

    10. The Narendra Mandal or Chamber of 

    Princes was inaugurated in 1921 by?

    A. Lord Curzon

    B. Lord Wellesley

    C. Duke of Cannaught

    D. Duke of Wellingdon

    Correct Answer: C

    11. Pitts India Act of 1784 was a/an?

    A. Ordinance

    B. Resolution

    C. White paper

    D. Regulation Act

    Correct Answer: B

    12. Which one of the following statements 

    is not true in respect of A.O. Hume?

    A. He founded the Indian National 

    Congress.

    B. He presided over the Congress Annual 

    Sessions twice.

    C. He was an ornithologist.

    D. He was a member of the Indian Civil 

    Service.

    Correct Answer: B

    13. Which of the following movements saw 

    the biggest peasant guerilla war on the eve 

    of independence?

    A. Punnapra Vayalar Movement

    B. Telangana Movement

    C. Noakhali Movement

    D. Tebhaga Movement

    Correct Answer: B

    14. Which General, who commanded the 

    British forces against the Americans in 

    their War of Independence later became 

    Governor-General of India?

    A. Dalhousie

    B. William Bentinck

    C. Wellesley

    D. Cornwallis

    Correct Answer: B

    15. Who established the Indian Civil 

    Liberties Union in 1936?

    A. Subhash Chandra Bose

    B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

    C. Jawahar Lal Nehru

    D. Rajendra Prasad

    Correct Answer: C

    16. Which of the following was established 

    first?

    A. Banaras Hindu University

    B. University of Bombay

    C. Aligarh Muslim University

    D. University of Allahabad

    Correct Answer: B

    17. The first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta 

    was launched in:

    A. 1972

    B. 1975

    C. 1977

    D. 1979

    Correct Answer: B

    18. Where did Aurangzeb die?

    A. Pune

    B. Aurangabad

    C. Ahmad Nagar

    D. Mumbai

    Correct Answer: C

    19. Who gave the title of “Sardar” to 

    Ballabh Bhai Patel?

    A. Mahatma Gandhi

    B. Vinoba Bhave

    C. Women of Bardoli

    D. Peasants of Gujrat

    Correct Answer: A

    20. What Satyagraha was held at Nagpur in 

    1923?

    A. Salt Satyagraha

    B. Individual Satyagraha

    C. Ryots Satyagraha

    D. Flag Satyagraha

    Correct Answer: D

    21. Who was the viceroy when Delhi 

    became the capital of British India?

    A. Lord Curzon

    B. Lord Minto

    C. Lord Hardinge

    D. Lord Waveli

    Correct Answer: C

    22. Who was the viceroy when Delhi 

    became the capital of British India?

    A. Lord Curzon

    B. Lord Minto

    C. Lord Hardinge

    D. Lord Waveli

    Correct Answer: C

    23. In 1939 Subhash Chandra Bose was elected as President of the Congress Party defeating:

    A. Jawaharlal Nehru

    B. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

    C. V.B. Patel

    D. Pattabhi Sitharamayya

    Correct Answer: D

    24. Jallianwala incident took place at:

    A. Lucknow

    B. Surat

    C. Amritsar

    D. Allahabad

    Correct Answer: C

    25. Swaraj is my Birth Right and I shall have 

    it. This was advocated by:

    A. Mahatma Gandhi

    B. Lala Lajpat Rai

    C. Sardar Patel

    D. Lokmanya Tilak

    Correct Answer: D

    26. Gandhiji’s Famous Quit India Movement call to the British was given in:

    A. 1940

    B. 1942

    C. 1941

    D. 1943

    Correct Answer: B

    27. In which year was the Indian National Congress formed:

    A. 1901

    B. 1835

    C. 1875

    D. 1885

    Correct Answer: D

    28. Bangladesh was created in:

    A. 1973

    B. 1970

    C. 1972

    D. 1971

    Correct Answer: D

    29. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder 

    of:

    A. Brahmo Samaj

    B. Prathna Samaj

    C. Ram Krishna Mission

    D. Arya Samaj

    Correct Answer: A

    30. Who initiated the movement to form 

    the Indian National Congress:

    A. Annie Besant

    B. A.O. Hume

    C. W.C. Banerjee

    D. Gandhi ji

    Correct Answer: B

    31. Who introduced Mansabdari system in 

    India?

    A. Babur

    B. Humayun

    C. Akbar

    D. Jahangir

    Correct Answer: C

    32. The ‘Cabinet Mission’ of 1946 was led 

    by 1946:

    A. Lord Linlithgow

    B. Lord Mountbatten

    C. Sir Pethic Lawrence

    D. Sir Mountford

    Correct Answer: C

    33. What did Gandhiji meant by 

    ‘Sarvodaya’?

    A. Non-violence

    B. Upliftment of untouchables or dalits

    C. The birth of a new society based on 

    ethical values

    D. Satyagraha

    Correct Answer: C

    34. Who propounded the “Doctrine of 

    Passive Resistance”?

    A. Balgangadhar Tilak

    B. Aurobindo Ghosh

    C. Lala Lajpat Rai

    D. Bipin Chandra Pal

    Correct Answer: B

    35. The first Muslim to be elected 

    President of ‘Indian National Congress’ 

    was?

    A. Maulana Azad

    B. Mohammed Ali

    C. Badruddin Tyabji

    D. Shah Wali-ullah

    Correct Answer: C

    36. Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded which of 

    the following organization?

    A. Dharam Sabha

    B. Atmiya Sabha

    C. Prarthana Sabha

    D. Arya Samaj

    Correct Answer: B

    37. Which Treaty was signed after the First 

    Anglo Mysore War?

    A. Treaty of Mangalore

    B. Treaty of Salbai

    C. Treaty of Madras

    D. Treaty of Lahore

    Correct Answer: C

    38. Who was the first Portuguese 

    Governor in India?

    A. Nino da Cunha

    B. Alfonso d’ Albuquerque

    C. Francisco de Almedia

    D. None of These

    Correct Answer: C

    39. In which Congress Session Resolution 

    of Fundamental Rights was passed?

    A. 1931, Karachi Session

    B. 1929, Lahore Session

    C. 1928, Calcutta Session

    D. 1936, Faizpura Session

    Correct Answer: A

    40. Which of the following Governor-

    General abolished Dual Government in 

    Bengal?

    A. Lord Willingdon

    B. Lord Clive

    C. Warren Hastings

    D. Lord Irwin

    Correct Answer: B

    41. VD Savarkar was the founder of which 

    revolutionary organization?

    A. Anushilan Samiti

    B. Bharat Naujawan Sabha

    C. Abhinav Bharat

    D. Gadar Party

    Correct answer: C

    42. Indian Home Rule Society was started 

    at which place?

    A. California

    B. London

    C. Berlin

    D. San Francisco

    Correct Answer: B

    43. Sargent Plan was related to reforms in 

    which field?

    A. Education Reforms

    B. Police Reforms

    C. Military Reforms

    D. Agricultural Reforms

    Correct Answer: A

    44. Which Sultan of Delhi used to write 

    under the pen name of ‘Gulrukhi’?

    A. Balban

    B. Bahlol Lodhi

    C. Khizr Khan

    D. Sikandar Lodhi

    Correct Answer: D

    45. Which Delhi Sultan established Diwan-

    e-Khoi, department of Agriculture?

    A. Iltutmish

    B. Alauddin Khilji

    C. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

    D. Ibrahim Lodhi

    Correct Answer: C

    46. Who established a modern arsenal in 

    Dindigul with the help of French?

    A. Tipu Sultan

    B. Haider Ali

    C. Mir Qasim

    D. Baji Rao 1

    Correct Answer: B

    47. Who was involved in the attempt to 

    murder Viceroy Hardinge, also called Delhi 

    Bomb Case?

    A. Khudi Ram Bose

    B. Ras Bihari Bose

    C. Prafulla Chaki

    D. Bhagat Singh

    Correct Answer: B

    48. Surya Sen is associated with which 

    event/case?

    A. Kakori Train Dacoity

    B. Murder of Rand and Amherst

    C. Murder of Curzon Wyllie

    D. Chittagong Armoury Raid

    Correct Answer: D

    49. Fifth Buddhist council was held in:

    A. Rajgriha

    B. Vaishali

    C. Mandalay

    D. Kundalvana, Kashmir

    Correct Answer: C

    50. Who among the following British 

    Officials suppressed the Revolt of Jhansi?

    A. Colin Campbell

    B. Henry Havelock

    C. Henry Lawrence

    D. Hugh Rose

    Correct Answer: D

    51. Who was the governor-general during 

    the Revolt of 1857?

    A. Lord Canning

    B. Lord Irwin

    C. Lord Lytton

    D. Lord Willington

    Correct Answer: A

    52. Who founded the Theosophical Society 

    of India?

    A.O Hume 

    B. Blavatsky and Olcott 

    C. M.G Ranade 

    D. Mahatma Gandhi 

    Correct Answer: B

    53. Who Introduced Permanent 

    Settlement in Bengal?

    A. Lord Cornwallis

    B. Lord Dalhousie

    C. Lord Curzon

    D. Lord William Bentick

    Correct Answer : A

    54. When was the Hindu College, Calcutta 

    established?

    A. 1829 

    B. 1817

    C. 1858

    D. 1853 

    Correct Answer: B 

    55. Which of the following is called “Magna 

    Carta of English Education in India”?

    A. Wood’s Dispatch

    B. Macaulay Commission

    C. Vernacular Act

    D. Both A; B

    Correct Answer: A

    56. Who was the Governor General of 

    India during the launch of Civil 

    Disobedience Movement?

    A. Lord Chelmsford

    B. Lord Curzon

    C. Lord Irwin

    D. Lord Wavell

    Correct Answer: C

    57. Permanent settlement was introduced

    by Cornwallis in Bengal in which year? 

    A. 1767 

    B. 1782 

    C. 1793 

    D. 1801 

    Correct Answer: C 

    58. Bhoodan movement was started by?

    A. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

    B. Jayaprakash Narayan

    C. Dada Bhai Naoroji

    D. Vinoba Bhave

    Correct Answer: D 

    59. First Round Table Conference began in 

    __________.

    A. 1929 

    B. 1930

    C. 1931

    D. 1932 

    Correct Answer: B 

    60. What did Muslim League demand 

    through its resolution of 1940?

    A. Separate nation for Muslim population

    B. Autonomy for Muslim-majority areas in 

    Eastern and North-western India

    C. 

    D.

    Correct Answer: B 

    61. August Offer was put forth by:

    A. Lord Irwin

    B. Lord Willingdon

    C. Lord Linlithgow

    D. Lord Wavell

    Correct Answer: C 

    62. Fifth Report was submitted to the 

    British Parliament in?

    A. 1789 

    B. 1813 

    C. 1897 

    D. 1929 

    Correct Answer: B 

    63. Rowlatt Act was introduced to _________.

    A. Repress political activities

    B. Detain political prisoners for 2 years

    without trial

    C. Censure newspapers

    D. Curtail religious freedom

    Correct Answer: B

    64. Rowlatt act was passed by ________ in

    the year _____.

    A. Lord Irwin in 1930

    B. Lord Reading in 1921

    C. Lord Chelmsford in 1919

    D. Lord Wavell in 1911

    Correct Answer: C

    65. Sarabande, no tax campaign was led by

    __________.

    A. Gandhiji

    B. Chittaranjan Das

    C. Vallabhai Patel

    D. Jawaharlal Nehru

    Correct Answer: C

    66. Hunter committee was constituted to

    enquire about ______________.

    A. Rowlatt Act

    B. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

    C. Partition of Bengal

    D. Non-cooperation movement

    Correct Answer: B

    67. Indigo revolt which began in Bengal

    took place in the year ___________.

    A. 1845

    B. 1859

    C. 1865

    D. 1901

    Correct Answer: 1859

    68. Wahabi movement in India was

    founded by:

    A. Mohammad Ali

    B. Muzzafarr Ahmed

    C. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

    D. Sayyid Ahmad

    Correct Answer: D

    69. Pagal panthi movement was led by:

    A. Asaf Ali

    B. Mohammad Abdur Rahiman

    C. Mir Nathar Ali

    D. Karam Shah

    Correct Answer: D

    70. William Jones established the Asiatic

    Society in Bengal in __________.

    A. 1784

    B. 1805

    C. 1825

    D. 1897

    Correct Answer: A

    71. Education was sanctioned Rs. 1 lakh in

    which of the Acts by British Parliament?

    A. Charter Act, 1784

    B. Charter Act, 1813

    C. Charter Act, 1833

    D. Charter Act, 1853

    Correct Answer: B

    72. English as a medium of instruction for

    native Indians was propounded by:

    A. William Jones

    B. Nathaniel Halhed

    C. Thomas Macaulay

    D. James Mill

    Correct Answer: C 

    73. Banaras Hindu University was founded 

    in which year? 

    A. 1910 

    B. 1916 

    C. 1925 

    D. 1931

    Correct Answer: B 

    74. The first Hindi language newspaper 

    published in 1826 in India was ________.

    A. Udant Martand

    B. Sambad Kaumadi

    C. Banga Duta

    D. Amrita Bazar Patrika

    Correct Answer: A 

    75. Commonweal newspaper was started

    by ___________

    A. Abul Kalam Azad

    B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

    C. Annie Besant

    D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

    Correct Answer: C 

    76. Who is known as Father of Indian 

    Renaissance? 

    A. Swami Vivekananda

    B. Aurobindo Ghosh

    C. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

    D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

     

    Correct Answer: D 

    77. The Arya Samaj was founded in 

    _________.

    A.1850 

    B.1875 

    C.1890 

    D.1905 

    Correct Answer: C 

    78. Prarthana Samaj was founded by 

    __________.

    A. Bal Gangadar Tilak

    B. M.G. Ranade

    C. Swami Dayananda

    D. Atmaram Pandurang 

    Correct Answer: D 

    79.The Age of Consent Act passed in the 

    year 1891 increased the age of consent 

    to_________.

    A. 10 years

    B. 11 years

    C. 12 years

    D. 13 years

    Correct Answer: C 

    80. The word ‘Swaraj’ was mentioned for 

    the first time in the INC session in 1906. 

    Who headed this session? 

    A. Madan Mohan Malaviya

    B. Surendranath Banerjee

    C. Dadabhai Naoroji

    D. Lal Mohan Ghosh

    Correct Answer: C

    81. Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir 

    at the time of independence was __________.

    A. Ram Chandra Kak

    B. Janak Singh

    C. Mehr Chand Mahajan

    D. Sheikh Abdullah

    Correct Answer: B

    82. Panchayati Raj was introduced in 

    Jammu and Kashmir in _________.

    A,1985

    B.1989

    C.1991

    D.1999

    Correct Answer: B

    83. The rule of Sikhs in Kashmir can be 

    seen during the years ________.

    A. 1820 – 1846

    B. 1810-1819

    C. 1790 – 1809

    D. 1760 – 1789

    Correct Answer: A

    84. Maharaja Ghulab Singh acquired 

    Kashmir in _________.

    A. 1820

    B. 1876

    C. 1846

    D. 1901

    Correct Answer: C

    85. The first Hydro-electric project at 

    Mohra was constructed in the year ______.

    A. 1895

    B. 1901

    C. 1905

    D. 1915

    Correct Answer: C

    86. India conducted its first nuclear 

    explosion in which year?

    A.1972

    B.1973

    C.1974

    D. 1975

    Correct Answer: C

    87. The reorganization of states on 

    linguistic basis was done in the year 

    A. 1952

    B. 1954

    C. 1956

    D. 1958

    Correct Answer: C

    88. Prime Minister of India during Indo-Pak 

    War of 1965 was :

    A. Gulzarilal Nanda

    B. Lal Bahadur Shastri

    C. Indira Gandhi

    D. Charan Singh

    Correct Answer: B

    89. Who proposed Party less democracy in 

    India?

    A. B. R. Ambedkar

    B. Achyut S Patwardhan 

    C. Jayprakash Narayan

    D. Amritlal Vithalal Thakkar 

    Correct Answer: C

    90. Bhilai Steel Plant was set up in the 

    year_________

    A. 1952

    B. 1959

    C. 1961

    D. 1965

    Correct Answer: B

    91. State Reorganisation Committee was 

    set up in which year?

    A. 1951

    B. 1953

    C. 1955

    D. 1957

    Correct Answer: B

    92. Planning Commission was established 

    in which year?

    A. 1948

    B. 1950

    C. 1952

    D.1954

    Correct Answer: B

    93. Second Five Year Plan focussed on 

    ________.

    A. Cement and Fertilizer sector

    B. Heavy Industries

    C. Agriculture

    D. Transport

    Correct Answer: B

    94. Viceroy of India at the time of Partition 

    of Bengal was:

    A. Lord Hardinge

    B. Lord Rippon

    C. Lord Curzon

    D. Lord Rippon

    Correct Answer: C

    95. When was Partition of Bengal 

    cancelled?

    A.1906

    B.1911

    C.1915

    D.1920

    Correct Answer: B

    96. Bihar was separated from Bengal 

    during the British rule in _________.

    A. 1905

    B. 1909

    C. 1912

    D. 1920

    Correct Answer: C

    97. Lucknow Pact between INC and 

    Muslim League was signed in _______.

    A. 1911

    B. 1916

    C. 1921

    D. 1925

    Correct Answer: B

    98. Political guru of Mahatma Gandhi was:

    A. Chittaranjan Das

    B. Lala Lajput Rai

    C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

    D. Lokamanya Tilak

    Correct Answer: C

    99. First Peasant movement in India was:

    A. Kheda peasant struggle

    B. Bardoli movement 

    C. Bijoliya peasant movement

    D. Champaran satyagraha

    Correct Answer: C 

    100. Leader of Bardoli Satyagraha was:

    A. Sardar Vallabhai Patel

    B. Mahatma Gandhi

    C. Mahadev Desai

    D. Morarji Desai

    Correct Answer: D

  • JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023 Check Qualification,Syllabus PDF,Apply Online

    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023 Check Qualification,Syllabus PDF,Apply Online Here 

    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023 Check Qualification,Syllabus PDF,Apply Online


    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Fresh Recruitment 2023: The Jammu Kashmir Staff Selection Board is about to release Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment for the various cadres like Naib Tehsildar NT in revenue department of j&k. There are 300+ Posts for which JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT recruitment 2023 is being released. However, JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Application Form 2023 Dates are not announced yet, but it is being expected that it shall be starting soon in Feb-March 2023. If we talk about eligibility, then all te graduate/higher education peoples can apply Online JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023. In this post we have briefly discussed jkssb.nic.in Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023 notification and Salary of JKSSBNaib Tehsildar NT.

    The application process will soon begin. In the JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Notification 2023, it was announced that more than 300+ positions would be open. To know everything about JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023, read the complete article carefully.

    Check out the notification details below in which we have appended complete information like Starting Date of Application form and Application Fees.

    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023 Eligibility

    • 1:- Candidates must be between the age of 18-43 Years.
    • 2:- You must have done Graduation in Required Trade like Naib Tehsildar NT.
    • 3:- Moreover, Graduate in any stream Holders can also Apply Online JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023.
    • 4:- Only Indian Citizens are eligible to Apply for Naib Tehsildar NT Post.

    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023

    Board Name Jammu Kashmir Staff Selection Board
    Title of Recruitment  JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Exam
    Job Title Naib Tehsildar NT
    Trades Naib Tehsildar NT
    Total Post 300+ Posts
    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Application Form Start Date  (Starting Soon)
    Last Date to Fill Form — Update soon
    Age Limit 18-43 Years
    Eligibility Naib Tehsildar NT

    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Salary 2023
    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Salary is fixed in Level 6 under the latest Pay Matrix.
    It Ranges from Rs 35400/- to Rs 112400/- for different posts.
    Other Allowances like HRA and DA are also Applicable on this pay.
    Salary is initiated once the Individual joins the department after receiving an Appointment Letter.

    Age Limit

    Minimum Age Limit : 18-Years

    Maximum Age Limit : 43-Years

    Age Relaxation 

    Category Age Relaxation
    SC / ST/ RBA/ ALC/ OSC 43-Years
    PWD 42-Years
    Ex-Servicemen 48-Years

    Method of Selection 

    • Written Examination
    • Merit List / Interview

    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Application Form 2023 Fees

    Category of Applicant Application Fees
    General/UR Rs 550/-
    SC/ST 400/-
    PwD 550/-
    EWS Rs 550/-
    OBC Rs 550/-

    Important Steps to Apply Online JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023

    • Open jkssb.nic.in from your choice of Device.
    • Secondly, Click on Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023 Apply Online Link.
    • Register yourself using the Requisite Details.
    • Now fill the JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Application Form 2023 with correct details.
    • Upload your Signature and Photograph in the correct fields.
    • Now proceed to pay the JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Application Form Fees.
    • You can opt the payment method as per your comfort and submit the fees.

    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Fresh Recruitment 2023-2024 Download Here Notification PDF Download and Apply online Direct Link

    JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment  Notification Download in pdf Read PDF
    Apply Online JKSSB Naib Tehsildar NT Recruitment 2023 Apply Form Now

  • JKSSB JE MECHANICAL Result 2023 PDF Download

    JKSSB JE MECHANICAL PWD DEPARTMENT Result 2023 PDF Download Here Check Your Result By Name Wise

    JKSSB JE MECHANICAL Result 2023 PDF Download

     Subject: Result/Score-sheet of Written Test for the post of Junior Engineer (Mechanical) – regarding.

    NOTIFICATION

    Whereas, the Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB) conducted Written Examination for the post of Junior Engineer (Mechanical), PWD Department, UT Cadre, advertised vide Advertisement Notification No. 06 of 2022, under Item No. 202, on 01st October, 2023; and

    Whereas, the JKSSB, vide Notice No. JKSSB-COEOEXAM(UT)/67/2023-03 (7271536), dated: 01-10-2023, issued provisional Answer Key in respect of the written test; and

    Whereas, the objections were examined and the revised/final answer key in respect of written examination held for the said post has been notified vide No. JKSSBCOEOEXAM(UT)/67/2023-03 (7271536) dated: 12-10-2023; and

    Now, therefore, in view of the above, the result/score-sheet, based on the performance of candidates who appeared in the Written Test for the post Junior Engineer (Mechanical), PWD Department, UT Cadre, advertised vide Advertisement Notification No. 06 of 2022, under Item No. 202, conducted on 01-10-2023, is hereby notified as Annexure “A”.

    It is further notified that:

    i. mere figuring in the result/score sheet shall not entitle a candidate to be called for document verification or figure in the select list and that he/she has to fulfil other eligibility conditions, as laid down and decision of the Board in this regard shall be final.

    ii.the Jammu & Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB) will call candidates falling in the consideration zone, based on the merit obtained by them for document verification. The schedule for document verification shall be notified separately.

    Download PDF 

  • JKSSB Draftsman Civil Document Verification List PDF

    JKSSB Draftsman Civil Document Verification List PDF Download Here Check Your Name Here 

    JKSSB Draftsman Civil Document Verification List PDF


    Subject: Document Verification of candidates falling under consideration zone for the post of Draftsman (Civil) – regarding. www.jkssb.nic.in 

    NOTIFICATION

    The Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board (JKSSB), vide Notification No. JKSSB-COEOEXAM(UT)/64/2023-03 (7263602), dated: 08-10-2023, issued the result/score sheet of the candidates who appeared in the OMR Based Written Examination, held on 24 09-2023 for the post of Draftsman (Civil), Jal Shakti Department, Divisional Cadre Jammu/Kashmir, advertised vide Advertisement Notification No. 01 of 2023, under Item Nos. 05 and 06.  

    Accordingly, keeping in view the need and object, to fill all requisitioned vacancies, the candidates, who are falling under the consideration zone for the aforementioned post, given in Annexure-A to this notification, are hereby called upon to appear physically before the designated Document Verification Committee of the Board for the verification/scrutiny of their documents/certificates w.e.f. 16-10-2023 to 19-10-2023 from 11.00 AM to 05.00 PM, as per the schedule indicated against each at Jammu and Kashmir Services Selection Board, Divisional Office, Sehkari Bhawan, Rail Head Complex, Jammu (Jammu Centre based candidates) and JKSSB, Central office, ZamZam Building, Rambagh, Srinagar (Kashmir Centre based Candidates). The candidate(s) who fail to appear before the respective Document Verification Committee on the scheduled date shall forfeit their right to selection. 

    Further, the candidates are required to produce following original documents / certificates in original, along-with two self-attested copies, before the designated Document Verification Committee: 

    Required Documents For DV

    1. Copy of Online Application Form(s). 
    2. Two passport size recent colour photographs.
     
    3. One original photo ID Proof i.e. Aadhar card/Voter Card/Pan Card/Passport etc. 
    4. D.O.B Certificate (10th Diploma/Marks card). 
    6. Domicile Certificate. 
    5. Valid Category Certificate, if any, applicable. 
    7. 10+2 Marks Sheet/Diploma. 
    8. Two year Draftsman Training Course Certificate/Diploma from any Government recognized Institute.

    Download PDF Here